Romans 8:28 – 9:23 — Part 1 (Rom. 8:28-29)
Lately I have been writing some exegetical thoughts on Romans 8:28 – 9:23 in preparation for multiple discussions I have been involved in with individuals opposed to the Reformed faith. As it turns out, every one of those individuals has chosen to discontinue the discussion before it ever really went anywhere. I’m not the least bit surprised. I’ve been conversing with synergist interpreters on a regular basis for six years now. This “shoot and run” tactic, where you just assert your opinion and simply express your dislike for the other position, then bail before they respond, sadly appears to be the normal behavior exhibited by many of these folks. It is no wonder that so many critics of the Reformed faith clearly do not understand the position they criticize when they won’t even stick around long enough to allow that position to be heard.
Well, I don’t want my time and efforts to have gone to waste, so I’ve chosen this outlet to share the thoughts and findings I have made on this text. By the grace of God, maybe I will gain some new readers and a productive discussion can come of this yet. I welcome all comments and criticisms (but uncivil or otherwise unnecessary remarks will not be approved). If someone out there finds the Reformed position to be unpersuasive and actually has something productive to contribute to the conversation (I am becoming more and more convinced that very few of you actually exist), I would love to hear from you. I encourage readers to pass the link to this study along to friends, pastors, or just whoever you think might be interested in discussing things further, or whoever may simply benefit from reading.
I’m not entirely sure yet how I will break up this study, but I will most likely deal with the text in small units. I will, however, have to of course do some overlap to keep up with the context. My notes on this text currently consist of over 20,000 words, so I will be tackling the discussion in a series of posts (you’re welcome). Today I would like to just start with a quick look at Romans 8:28-29, and more specifically Paul’s usage of the words “foreknew” and “predestined” in verse 29:
28 And we know that for those who love God all things work together for good, for those who are called according to his purpose. 29 For those whom he foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son, in order that he might be the firstborn among many brothers.
This word, “foreknew,” is commonly misunderstood, because rarely is it carefully considered and defined according to the author’s own usage before an assumed meaning is applied. The text here says that “for those whom he foreknew he also predestined.” To some people, the meaning seems obvious. “The predestination follows foreknowledge. Therefore, to say that God predestines someone means only that He chooses those whom He foresees would freely choose Him.” This is the reasoning that can commonly be heard, even from the pulpit. In other words, God’s “predestination” (if we can even really use that term here) is based on foreseen faith in the believer. “Predestination,” then, is really just a fancy biblical way of saying that God recognized what man would choose, and then stamped it with His approval. However, this is only the “obvious” meaning of the text if one comes to it excepting for it to say a certain thing. Upon closer examination, the interpretation simply fails, because it does not acknowledge the way in which the word “foreknew” is being used in this verse.
The word “foreknew” in verse 29 is proegnō, which is the aorist active indicative form of proginōskō – “to have foreknowledge.” In other words, it is an active verb. It is not a noun (i.e. the knowledge being a thing, as if God were possessing it). It is, rather, an action that God is performing toward an object. It does not mean that God is just passively acquiring knowledge of something in the future. The point that Paul is making in the verbal chain in verses 29 and 30 is that God is stepping forward in each of these actions and actually doing something to affect an object. So to understand this verse to be saying that God simply knew of these individuals beforehand, or of what they would do or choose, I would suggest is simply and objectively wrong. What Paul is specifically telling us is that God did something toward the object, just as He did with the “predestinating,” as well as with the “calling,” “justifying,” and “glorifying” that follow in the next verse. All these verbs share the same grammatical characteristics, which indicate that Paul is telling us that these are five actions of God which He is performing toward a certain object — the same object in each instance.
Secondly, we must note that this object is personal. It is a reference to individuals themselves, and not a reference to their actions or choices. “Those whom he foreknew.” Again, every verb in this verse and the following verse is an active indicative and has the same object, “those whom.” The object assigned to the first verb is the same object assigned to all those that follow, as indicated by the kai (“also/and”) between each verb. “Those whom he foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son.” The identification of the same exact object for both verbs is unavoidable. Paul is talking about individuals, not merely their actions, and he is talking about the same group of individuals throughout the whole verbal chain in vv. 29,30, and not a “narrowing” audience where he starts out with a general application of all humanity, and then narrows his scope to those that would actually be saved. It is the same object throughout, and that object is personal. So it is only proper to understand this “foreknowing” in the same sense in which we understand the “predestinating,” “calling,” “justifying,” and “glorifying” that follows. Whatever this “foreknowing” means, it cannot mean that God simply passively takes in knowledge of what men would choose in the future, because all these verbs express definite activities that God Himself is actively doing, and doing toward someone.
Thus, the reading of this text which assumes the meaning, “those whom God foreknew would believe he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son,” forces an additional qualifying notion onto the text that is neither present, nor implied, nor even consistent with what Paul is actually saying. And yet, so often is this understanding just assumed when reading the verse that many develop a whole doctrine off of it without even thinking twice. That’s something called reading the Bible through the lens of your preconceptions. The people who make this mistake say that God looked down the corridors of time, saw which individuals would freely choose to accept His offer of salvation, and on the basis of that foreseen faith, “predestine” (i.e. recognize and stamp approval on) them to salvation. I would suggest such an idea is no where to be found anywhere in the pages of Scripture. It seems obvious only to those who unwittingly expect to find it there because of their tradition. But when we get down to actually studying the details of the text, we find that no such idea can be derived out of a careful study of the Bible.
So then, if Paul is not talking about God’s mere foreknowledge of human decisions, then what does it really mean to say that God foreknew someone? Well, many have suggested it before, and I agree: In Scripture, this word “foreknew” is almost identical in meaning to the word “foreloved.” It is expressing a loving action that God performs toward a group of people, in choosing in eternity past to express His special favor toward them.
The Scriptures use the words “know” and “foreknow” in a very interesting way. Rather than referring only to a knowledge of something, they often convey the meaning of intimacy in relationship. For instance, in Genesis 4:1 we read, “Now Adam knew Eve his wife, and she conceived and bore Cain.” Is this telling us that Eve became pregnant simply because Adam knew information about her? Of course not. There is obviously a much more intimate meaning intended there.
The examples in which this euphemism is used in reference to God’s relationship to His people are even more common and forceful. For example, in Jeremiah 1:5, God says, “Before I formed you in the womb I knew you.” Is this just a reference to the fact that God knew all about what Jeremiah would do in his life? No, this statement is made in the context of God’s appointing of Jeremiah to his special task as prophet. What God is saying is that before Jeremiah was even born, He determined to set His heart upon him and appoint him to a special task. Similarly, in Amos 3:2, God says, “You only have I known of all the families of the earth; therefore I will punish you for all your iniquities.” Is Israel really the only family on earth that God knows anything about? Certainly not. God’s “knowing” of Israel signifies that this family is His special object of affection and concern. This is why the verse concludes by saying, “therefore I will punish you for all your iniquities.” God chastises those whom He loves. The intended meaning is that He has a special intimate relationship with these people that He does not share with the rest of the world. Let’s consider one more example, this time from the mouth of Jesus. Matthew 7:22-23: “On that day many will say to me, ‘Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in your name, and cast out demons in your name, and do many mighty works in your name?’ And then will I declare to them, ‘I never knew you; depart from me, you workers of lawlessness.’” Once more the meaning here is obvious. Jesus knows about every person. So why does He say here, “I never knew you”? The context is clear that the “knowing” (or rather, not knowing) is in the sense of having never been intimately connected with Christ.
John Murray gives the following explanation of the verb “foreknew” in Romans 8:29:
It should be observed that the text says ‘whom He foreknew’; whom is the object of the verb and there is no qualifying addition. This, of itself, shows that, unless there is some other compelling reason, the expression ‘whom he foreknew’ contains within itself the differentiation which is presupposed. If the apostle had in mind some ‘qualifying adjunct’ it would have been simple to supply it. Since he adds none we are forced to inquire if the actual terms he uses can express the differentiation implied. The usage of Scripture provides an affirmative answer. Although the term ‘foreknew’ is used seldom in the New Testament, it is altogether indefensible to ignore the meaning so frequently given to the word ‘know’ in the usage of Scripture; ‘foreknow’ merely adds the thought of ‘beforehand’ to the word ‘know’. Many times in Scripture ‘know’ has a pregnant meaning which goes beyond that of mere cognition. It is used in a sense practically synonymous with ‘love’, to set regard upon, to know with peculiar interest, delight, affection, and action (cf. Gen 18:19; Exod. 2:25; Psalm 1:6; 144:3; Jer. 1:5; Amos 3:2; Hosea 13:5; Matt 7:23; I Cor. 8:3; Gal. 4:9; II Tim. 2:19; I John 3:1). There is no reason why this import of the word ‘know’ should not be applied to ‘foreknow’ in this passage, as also in [Rom. 11:2] where it also occurs in the same kind of construction and where the thought of election is patently present (cf. [Rom. 11:5,6]). When this import is appreciated, then there is no reason for adding any qualifying notion and ‘whom He foreknew’ is seen to contain within itself the differentiating element required. It means ‘whom he set regard upon’ or ‘whom he knew from eternity with distinguishing affection and delight’ and is virtually equivalent to ‘whom he foreloved’. This interpretation, furthermore, is in agreement with the efficient and determining action which is so conspicuous in every other link of the chain – it is God who predestinates, it is God who calls, it is God who justifies, and it is He who glorifies. Foresight of faith would be out of accord with the determinative action which is predicated of God in these other instances and would constitute a weakening of the total emphasis at the point where we should least expect it….It is not the foresight of difference but the foreknowledge that makes difference to exist, not a foresight that recognizes existence but the foreknowledge that determines existence. It is a sovereign distinguishing love.1
So the most reasonable conclusion is that Paul is utilizing the biblical synonyms of knowledge and love in this text. The verb “foreknew” means that God, in eternity past, determined to set His heart upon certain individuals (not because of anything they did, but purely according to His purpose – cf. v. 28), and that loving action of God is the basis of His predestination of them, which is itself the basis of each of the other verbs that follows in verse 30. In other words, an individual’s choice to have faith is not the cause of predestination, but instead it is the result of it (cf. Eph. 2:8-9; 1 John 5:1). God is the determiner of His plan for creation, not man. That, I believe, is Paul’s main point throughout these chapters, as we will see more and more clearly as we progress in this study. His intention is to demonstrate the freedom of God in salvation, not the freedom of man.
Finally, this interpretation of “foreknew” as “foreloved” is not made redundant by the “he predestined” that comes after, because predestination has to do with establishing a purpose in advance, and not necessarily a loving relationship. In other words, to foreknow an individual is for God to choose to set His heart upon that individual, and to predestine that individual is, on the basis of that love, to purpose that the individual would then be saved. One commentary states the matter like so:
In what sense are we to take the word “foreknow” here? “Those who He foreknew would repent and believe,” say Pelagians of every age and every hue. But this is to thrust into the text what is contrary to the whole spirit, and even letter, of the apostle’s teaching (see Ro 9:11; 2Ti 1:9). In Ro 11:2, and Ps 1:6, God’s “knowledge” of His people cannot be restricted to a mere foresight of future events, or acquaintance with what is passing here below. Does “whom He did foreknow,” then, mean “whom He foreordained?” Scarcely, because both “foreknowledge” and “foreordination” [i.e. predestination] are here mentioned, and the one as the cause of the other. It is difficult indeed for our limited minds to distinguish them as states of the Divine Mind towards men; especially since in Ac 2:23 “the counsel” is put before “the foreknowledge of God,” while in 1Pe 1:2 “election” is said to be “according to the foreknowledge of God.” But probably God’s foreknowledge of His own people means His “peculiar, gracious, complacency in them,” while His “predestinating” or “foreordaining” them signifies His fixed purpose, flowing from this, to “save them and call them with an holy calling” (2Ti 1:9).2
In summary, to foreknow persons means that God has chosen in eternity past to act toward the individuals in love — that is, affect the action toward them — and not just passively take in knowledge of what they will do or choose, contrary to the popular, yet tradition-inspired reading of this text.
With these considerations established, a lengthy discussion of “predestined” is not necessary, for there is only one way to properly understand the term in this context. It must be understood as a reference to God’s unconditional electing action of particular individuals. That is to say, His choosing of certain individuals to be saved is not based on anything in them (such as foreseen faith) (hence the “unconditional”). It is based purely on His own purpose in salvation to save whom He intends to save, toward His own glory. And this is the most natural reading of the text to begin with. It does not rely on having to come up with fancy ways of defining “predestined” like the synergistic camp is required to do in order to maintain their view.
Speaking of which, there is another unwarranted understanding of predestination forced onto this text which I have thus far failed to mention. It has sometimes been suggested that God merely elects “a people,” that is, a group or sphere of persons, but actually leaves it up to the individuals to determine (by their choice of faith) whether or not they belong to that sphere. That understanding of “predestined” is simply impossible here. The personal reference forces us to understand the object of the verb to be individuals, not just a grouping. If God only elects a “group,” but does not specifically choose the individuals who make up that group, then His election is an election of an abstract idea, and not an election of persons. If God cannot say, “I am choosing John, and Sarah, and Nathan, and Amanda,” but can only say, “I am choosing to save ‘a group of people,’ the contents of which are undetermined,” then the personal reference makes no sense here, because that is not an election of individual persons; it is an election of an abstract sphere — an impersonal grouping or concept, the contents of which are not determined by that electing act itself. That is not what Paul is telling us. The object he uses makes it clear that the predestination is a predestinating of the specific individuals who actually make up that group. It is the specific contents of that group that the electing act is defined as determining. That is the only way to make sense of the personal reference.
We will see as we progress through this series that this unconditional election of individuals unto salvation is the only way to properly understand what Paul is talking about, because he is later going to anticipate and respond to certain objections that are specifically related to natural concerns that one would have about the idea of an unconditional election (e.g. how God would be just in the act). It would make no sense for Paul to raise such objections if he meant anything else by “predestined” than the most obvious and natural understanding of the word. Thus, the best way to understand Romans 8:29 is in the most straight-forward way possible: Those individuals whom God determined to specially love, on the basis of His own sovereign purpose, He also determined to save.
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1 Murray, J., The Epistle to the Romans, Vol. I, pp. 316-318. Quoted in Steele, D. N., Thomas, C. C., The Five Points of Calvinism: Defined, Defended, Documented, p. 86.
2 Jamieson, R., Fausset, A. R., Fausset, A. R., Brown, D., & Brown, D. (1997). A commentary, critical and explanatory, on the Old and New Testaments (Ro 8:29)
mike rucker
the reason for the reference to “people” is that the new testament reference of jacob and esau is most likely meant in the non-individual sense. however, let me talk about the individual sense. how do you as a calvinist deal with genesis 27, especially where esau has gone off as directed by his father to collect game to prepare for isaac so that isaac can then bless him? he is following isaac’s (he, a God type) command, he completes the task, he comes back, he prepares the meal, and he comes in to get isaac’s blessing. the story, obviously, is that isaac has already blessed jacob. here, when isaac – again, the God-type, if we are to carry the romans-esau-as-individual metaphor backwards – realizes what he (isaac) has done, and he doesn’t just shrug his shoulders and say, well, that’s just the way i mapped it out, dude – sucks for you. rather, he *trembles*, and he faces esau’s broken-hearted sobs – made especially all the more heart-wrenching when one considers that esau was only out doing what isaac had commanded him to do. something like a jew in jesus’ day, i would offer. something, perhaps, like a sincere wanting-to-be-saved unbeliever who, in the calvinist scheme, has no chance. and don’t pretend there aren’t these types – if we consider there are 10 billion individuals, we aren’t left only to deal with the lost who have rejected God – we have to deal with the lost who had a desire to believe but were not elect. yes, we could appeal to God’s justice, and say, well, God would not have let this happen, but then we’re no different than the Arminian who wants to appeal to God’s love and grace and mercy for similar actions. so how do you handle the passages in in genesis 27, especially if we really are treating esau as as individual and not a people? thanks.
Scott
Mike,
Thanks for your comment, although I am a little confused by what you’re trying to get at. I have not gotten to Romans 9 yet. This post is the first in a series, and only offers comments on Romans 8:28-29. Do you have any objections or questions concerning the content of this post in particular? I suggest waiting until I get to the text you are curious about so that you can read my exegesis of it, before challenging or questioning my views that I have yet to state.
When interpreting a New Testament text that quotes the Old Testament, what’s important is that we seek to understand the author’s intended usage of that quote. It’s not enough to just jump back to the original context and read your interpretation of that text back into the text it is being quoted in. Paul has a point he is trying to make. He has a reason he is citing the Old Testament example of Jacob and Esau. He brings this issue up to serve as an example of a point he is trying to argue. What is that point? That’s the question you must start with. What is the intended apostolic application of the text in this context? When I get to Romans 9, I will demonstrate why I believe a personal understanding is the only way to make sense out of what Paul is arguing. You will need to interact with that demonstration, not just jump off to other texts to bring up additional questions.
As for your reference to Genesis 27, can you please elaborate on your question? I’m not sure I understand what you’re trying to get at. Bear in mind, though, that Calvinists believe God ordains both the ends as well as the means through which these ends will be achieved. This is why Reformed theology does not contradict, but in fact emphasizes choice, prayer, evangelism, and preaching.
You also demonstrate a misunderstanding of the Calvinist position when you say, “we have to deal with the lost who had a desire to believe but were not elect.” The Calvinist doctrine of total depravity precludes any possibility of such a person ever existing. Total depravity states that man is dead in sin, enslaved to a sinful inclination of the heart, and as such NEVER WILL sincerely desire to believe UNLESS God elects and draws the sinner irresistibly to himself. You miss the whole point of the Reformed perspective on a fundamental level if you are under the impression that there could be men who want to come but can’t because they aren’t elect. God prevents no one from coming to him. Their own sin does. God is who frees us from that bondage. But the key issues with Calvinism you have to understand are that no one is capable or willing to ask for this freeing grace of God PRIOR to it actually being given (for that is the very reason why it is necessary for it to be given in the first place), and that if God chooses to save some to demonstrate His glory in salvation, and chooses to judge others to demonstrate His glory in justice, that is His right. God is under no obligation to extend His grace to everyone equally when no one deserves it to begin with.
Please make sure you understand the position before you decide to judge it negatively.
Alto
Hello Tim,You wrote:“Thus, for you to say that non-Calvinists deny God’s omniscience is propostereus.”I agree with you completely on this statement. The orthodox teaching of the Christian church across all traditions (including Catholic, Eastern Orthodox, Protestant) is that God is omniscient (and this includes exhaustive knowledge of all future events, even those that include actions and choices that involve free will). Put simply the majority position among Christians throughout church history is both that men have free will as ordinarily understood and that God has knowledge of everything/omniscience. Only theological determinists, e.g. calvinists, deny free will. And only a small minority, e.g. open theists, have denied omniscience.So when Rhutchin writes:“Non-Calvinists within the Baptist churches have yet to come to grips with God’s omniscience and have yet to challenge the Calvinists on this. The non-Calvinists cannot find a way to affirm that God is omniscient without also denying His omniscience in their theology.”First he is mistaken regarding non-calvinists needing to “challenge” calvinists on this.There is nothing to challenge in regards to this as both non-calvinists and calvinists agree that God **is** omniscient. As they both agree on this issue there is no need to challenge one another on something we already agree upon.Second he is mistaken when he claims:“The non-Calvinists cannot find a way to affirm that God is omniscient without also denying His omniscience in their theology.”Non-calvinists (who are not open theists) affirm omniscience and have explained its compatibility with free will in various ways including: (1) the Boethian way (i.e. God sees everything at once, what C. S. Lewis called an “eternal now”); (2) Ockhamist way (e.g. Alvin Plantinga); (3) Molinist way (e.g. via middle knowledge, Thomas Flint, Kevin Keathley); (4) simple foreknowledge way (e.g. God simply knows the future exhautively, David Hunt), etc.What all of these ways have in common is that they **all** affirm that God is omniscient in contrast to open theists.Rhutchin’s comments then are absolutely false and show almost total ignorance of theology in regards to this issue. If Rhutchin **does know** of these various non-calvinist theologies and makes his claim, then he is intentionally lying about the situation. I will assume his comments flow from ignorance rather than intentional deceit.Robert
Scott
Did you mean to reply on a different post? As to your comment, please stay on topic. Your allegations simply dismiss the arguments I have made without any interaction with them. You need to deal with the content of the post if you want to criticize the view set forth. I never made the claim that non-Calvinists deny God’s omniscience. I argued (note, argued, not merely asserted) that non-Calvinism is INCONSISTENT when it claims to believe in omniscience.
mike rucker
sorry, probably too much wrapped up in my one comment. i looked for a direct email on your blog to send you the genesis 27 question and, finding none, tried to wrap the question into this post – probably unfair of me. i understand total depravity (both theologically … and personally
) but am having trouble with the “esau have i hated” motif in light of genesis 27. there, esau appears to be putting feet to faith, having gone out to assemble the meal to get the blessing. yes, we can stretch metaphors too thin, just as we can parables, trying to force meaning into every nook and cranny. it’s just that esau’s sobs hit me particularly hard the other day as i read this passage, and wanted to get a calvinist perspective on it. i’ll let you carry on with the rest of your romans analysis and jump back in at a more fitting point. thanks for reading.
Scott
Hi Mike,
No problem, I would be happy to give you my perspective. But I’m still a little confused on what you’re trying to say. Are you saying that Genesis 27 should cause us to question whether “Esau I hated” can be understood in reference to the person of Esau, and therefore it must be a reference to the nation he fathered?
Alexandr
that God looks into the future to “discover” how pelope will respond. I have heard several Pastors or seminary educated pelope make this claim. It normally comes in a statement like this, First you choose God, and then God chooses you. In the book Whosoever Will (Allen/Lemke eds), we read, God foreknows those who will respond in faith and on the basis of that foreknowledge He predestines (p152) which I understand to be the position I noted. The same statement is made in the book, Against Calvinism, Roger E. Olson, who wrote, “Election is simply God’s foreknowledge of who will freely receive this grace unto salvation.” (p.129) If these guys meant something different from what I concluded, it escaped me.You then say, However, your use of “omniscient” leaves out something about this attribute of God that is very important. Omniscience does not just include God’s intellectual capabilities but also His use of those unlimited capabilities. You see, your use of omniscience limits God to only his capability and does not address his use of His unlimited intellect .Thus, for you to say that non-Calvinists deny God’s omniscience is preposterous. I simply do not understand what this means or what you might mean by writing it. I am using omniscience in the sense of God’s knowledge being perfect and complete; there is not anything unknown to God about the world before He creates the world. I simply do not understand what you are trying to say.Otherwise, I enjoyed your comments.
Scott
Alexandr,
I’m not sure what is so complicated about my argument. Please just read it. Perhaps something has you confused? Why are you commenting on this post regarding an issue discussed in a different post? Did you mean to comment on that one?
The issue is really quite simple: If God has exhaustive knowledge of the future (which He does), then the future is determined. This is not an issue of God’s abilities or inabilities. Rather, is a contradiction in terms to speak of “knowledge” of something that is not yet certain to take place. Therefore, if we can agree that God has absolute, certain knowledge of every future event, then we should also be able to agree that every future event, at least in some sense, is already determined. How can you say that God “knows” for a fact that Mike will come to faith next week, if it is possible that he might not? If God “knows” for a fact that he will, then that’s really just the same as saying that, well, he will! It’s certain to happen. On the other hand, if anyone disagrees with the claim that the future is determined, then they do (not in verbal affirmation, but in implication) deny divine omniscience, necessarily. Because if the course of the future is still open to being determined then you can’t say that God exhaustively knows what will in fact happen. You can only say that He knows of possibilities and probabilities.
Tibahurira
Election without fdeoknowlerge (prescience) is like grace without faith. If they stand apart, they stand alone. I’m hearing the same argument in respect to fdeoknowlerge verses foreknew. God’s fdeoknowlerge isn’t turned off so to speak in order to make this dogma plausible. Not “One” of His Divine attributes can be omitted in this discussion rather “All” of His attributes rest heavily upon the subject or any “other” for that matter. I understand the intimacy of foreordination but let’s not leave out or even minimize fdeoknowlerge. Election according to fdeoknowlerge fits well in God’s redemptive reconciliation and doesn’t violate His Sovereignty because it is in the “text”. Remember, those who have perished, did so without excuse, so it will be with those who will perish according to the general revelation of God and the gospel which was preached. Unconditional election is “all” of God and so is the faith which comes from the Word of God. The delivery system for grace is faith which comes from God by the way. Christ Jesus marveled at the unbelief of the House of Israel. He told some of them that they would die in their sins but this was not to God’s delight as some believe. Jesus Christ, The Eternal Word, Himself many of them thrust Him away to their own doom. Listen, they did not perish without the Word! In Acts 26 Christ told Paul He would make him a minister, to open their eyes so that they may turn from darkness to light and from the dominion of Satan to God, (repentance) that they may receive forgiveness of sins an inheritance among those who have been sanctified by “faith” in Me. In verse 20, this was Paul’s message to Jew and Gentiles, that they should repent and turn to God, performing deeds appropriate to repentance. Those who perish on this side of the flood do so, just as those Antediluvian did. They refused to repent and obey the gospel, perishing without any excuse on God’s behalf and having no excuse they did not obey the Gospel. The rich man in Luke 16 died, lifted up his eyes in Hades in torments. His agonizing request to Abraham for finger-water was denied without mercy. So now he remembers his father’s house, where (5) of his brothers, as far as he was concerned, were on their way headlong to the same deserving conclusion. We find in Abraham’s remarks that the method of salvation involves the Word of God but we also find out why the rich man was in Hades and his brothers on the way (repentance) . The rich man knew he deserved his lot simply because he refused to repent of sin. Prior to his death none of his brothers had come to genuine repentance and faith in God. Listen, Those who perished in the flood in Genesis did so by rejecting the gospel preached by Noah. They were not marked out in eternity, or left out by decree. The reason I know is they heard the Noah’s preaching for 120 years. Now did it take 120 years for the preacher of righteousness to win his own house? Why, preach to those above the eight souls who were marked out in eternity to perish in the flood. Why was God’s heart grieved? Listen, it is the goodness of God that leads to true repentance. When the gospel is preached, the kindness of God is unleashed